: Can you explain how this disallowed wash sale loss is calculated? I can see that the first row of the data shows 0.00 in cost and .93 in proceeds, which results a -.07 gain. With only this set of trades, how is

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I can't read the broker's mind (or, the IT guy that programmed the software that produced the note), but once 30 days have elapsed since the sale of the last shares, you are done. The net loss is deductible. You indicated there were no other transactions, but even if there were, when one goes 30 days with no owned shared, the gains and losses are tallied up, and there is no current wash sale.

In response to Henning's comments. It's not in my interest to debate a third party explanation. On Money.SE, a citation of an IRS document is preferable. From Pub 550 p58 -

Example 1. You buy 100 shares of X stock for ,000. You sell these
shares for 0 and within 30 days from the sale you buy 100 shares of
the same stock for 0. Because you bought substantially identical
stock, you cannot deduct your loss of 0 on the sale. However, you
add the disallowed loss of 0 to the cost of the new stock, 0, to
obtain your basis in the new stock, which is ,050.

In this example, it's clear that the basis of the replacement shares is lowered by the deferred loss. And when those shares are sold (with no further purchase within 30 days) the loss is taken. Thus, my prior attempt at summarizing why a wash sale is concluded once all shares are sold and no position held, for 30 days.

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A wash sale occurs when you incur a loss and you buy a “substantially identical” stock, option or or security within 30 days before or after the loss date.

If done, the loss is added to the cost basis of the substantially identical investment you purchased and gets carried forward until the position is fully liquidated for more than 30 days. Full liquidation occurred on 11/10/18. I also don't see why this is a wash sale.

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I can see that the first row of the data shows 0.00 in cost and .93 in proceeds, which results a -.07 gain. With only this set of trades, how is it determined that .07 is the wash sale loss disallowed?

You had a purchase of at least that many shares within the 30 days prior to that sale according to the last row in the table you presented. That means that first loss is disallowed under the wash sale rule.

However, that doesn't mean you never get to deduct that loss -- it means that the loss is included in the basis in the shares that cause the disallowance and is recovered when those shares are sold.

Note that the wash sale rule doesn't care about FIFO or accounts or anything else. Heck, it doesn't even require the buy and the sell to be the same financial instrument so long as they're substantially equivalent. It just requires that you bought something and sold something substantially equivalent within 30 days, which the data you presented says that you did. If you buy 10 shares and then your first following sell is 10 shares at a loss within 30 days, that sale is a wash sale. No other factors matter.