To Slash or not to Slash?
In years gone by, when I saw a chord marked, for example, A, I would use any inversion or voicing I felt was appropriate - still do; it doesn't have to be root position. Or does it? Is there an untold rule that says unless a marked chord has a slash saying which inversion,(i.e.A/E, 2nd inv.) it should be played as root. It's a given that a slash chord needs (at least as far as the composer's concerned) the bass note to be that after the slash.
When did chords start to be named with slashes, and where did it come from?
(3)3 Comments
Sorted by latest first Latest Oldest Best
Slash notation started gaining traction in the 1960 or 1970s. You can find them in the Real Book Fifth Edition, which was produced some time in the 70s.
There are several old interviews with jazz trumpeter Dizzy Gillespie, in which he discusses the half-diminished chord (aka minor 7 flat 5). Dizzy says that he and other early bebop musicians (specifically Thelonious Monk) thought of this chord as a "minor sixth chord with the six in the bass." So the concept of slash chords was around in the 30s or 40s, but it doesn't appear that they were using the actual slash notation at the time.
I can't say anything about the history, but @Peter seems to have that covered in his answer.
...To Slash or not to Slash?...
If you have only one accompaniment instrument - like a piano or guitar - which needs to handle the bass - or if you are the bass player - you should be mindful of the inversion indicated by the slash. Someone filling in the middle while a bass instrument deals with those inversions has more latitude to not use the proper inversion.
While pop styles seem tolerant of 'interpreting' the chords with substitutions, different voicings, etc. classical style really doesn't allow that latitude. I suppose I am a biased snob, because I feel you must play the right inversions. Can you imagine playing highway to Hell without the slashed D/F#!
The choice also needs to be tempered with an understanding that many song books list the wrong chord symbols. I've seen many slashed, added, and sus'ed chords that are obviously wrong compared to the recorded arrangement and inexplicably try to represent non-chord tones in the melody.
So I think there is room for interpreting, but I think essential inversions should be recognized and played as indicated.
I'd probably look for some context in the music. For a piece that uses a bunch of slash chords, I might consider voicing anything without a slash as root position. If there's only a few slash chords (or none), I'd just play whatever I felt was best for the song. This is subjective, but I'd argue that for simple piano parts, root position would be more often the intent behind "A", for example.
I know that for ukulele music, inversions are disregarded unless specified (F means 0-1-0-2 usually). I'd say probably your interpretation was correct, in that if no slash inversion is specified, it's up for interpretation.
Terms of Use Privacy policy Contact About Cancellation policy © freshhoot.com2025 All Rights reserved.