If F followed by Fm resolves to C, What do F# and F#m resolve to?
Firstly, apologies if I am using the wrong terminology here. I am a beginner guitarist and only know a little music theory.
Considering the example of 'I will Follow you into the Dark' by Death Cab For Cutie, the introduction features the progression:
Am, C, E, Am, G, F, Fm, C/G
Messing around on the fretboard, I realised that I can play those same F barre chords on the second fret which presumably are F# and F#m.
So what what would naturally follow in that case and be the 'resolving chord' instead of C/G? And why?
(3)3 Comments
Sorted by latest first Latest Oldest Best
C#. Because it's the same thing, shifted up a semi-tone.
The progression F - Fm - C/G is a technique used in many songs. The F is the IV of C. The walk down is in the third of the F chord (A) to F Minor (Ab) then to the C Major (G), there is a G bass note over the C chord. So their is a chromatic movement of A-Ab-G in the harmony.
'Wake Me Up When September Ends' uses this over the hook in the song. It is used in all forms of music for a smooth transition to the I chord.
To answer the question you would resolve to the C# chord. What you are hearing is that popular movement at the end of the progression.
The answer is in fact "C#/G#" (a C# with a G# as the bass note). That chord can be played as an A shaped barre chord on the 4th fret (446664).
But playing the progression - Am, C, E, Am, G, F, Fm, C/G a semitone higher will mean having to play all barre chords instead of the open Am, E, and G and C/G.
Not sure why you would want to do that. If your desire is to play the song in a key one half step higher, my solution would be to put a capo on the first fret and play the same (mostly open) chord shapes. Unless you would rather play barre chords. I personally try to only play barre chords when there is a good reason or a need. Otherwise I avoid barre chords.
Just sayin .....
Terms of Use Privacy policy Contact About Cancellation policy © freshhoot.com2026 All Rights reserved.