In 4-part harmony, Vii's 5th note (V7's 7th note) should also resolve down?
In 4-part harmony, isn't the ?7's 7th note supposed to resolve by going a step down? If so, because the ? is the substitute of the ?, shouldn't the ?'s 5th note (?7's 7th note) also resolve down?
ex: A7's (?7) G should resolve to F? (F natural if it's in D minor), so shouldn't the G of C?m-5's (??) resolve to F? (or F) as well?
But in this example it doesn't, the 5th of ? resolves upwards.
( second bar's ? )
(1)1 Comments
Sorted by latest first Latest Oldest Best
Generally speaking yes, and in particular if this were in the bass then you would have to have quite strong arguments to not resolve it downwards. But in a middle voice, the leading-tone qualities always stand out much less strikingly, so that's usually where the rules are bent in order to smoothen voice leading elsewhere. Presumably, the start of the next bar relies on the soprano coming from the F note (or, d-e-f is simply what the main melody does, can't change that just to cater to some small middle-voice issue!), and another rule is not to double thirds except as a deliberate effect, so that's why you don't give the alto an F there. You could pull it all the way down to D, but both bass and tenor have D already so that's not a good option either. Therefore, the best compromise in this case is to have the alto go up instead of the in itself more natural down direction.
Terms of Use Privacy policy Contact About Cancellation policy © freshhoot.com2026 All Rights reserved.